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practise set 3 #49
Brittany_6462
#1 Posted : Friday, June 04, 2021 12:08:43 AM
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I am confused about the probability in this question. If its autosomal dominant, and the dad is Aa, wouldnt it be 50% chance the child gets the diseases because mom would have been aa, therefore 1/2 their offspring would get it, and dad can only give its A allele to the child.
INSTR_Kennedy_135
#2 Posted : Wednesday, June 16, 2021 4:32:41 PM
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Hello,

There is a one-half probability that the individual will get the disease (Father is Aa) and then there is another half probability that the disease allele will be passed onto the child. ½ x ½ = ¼. Therefore, answer choice B is correct.
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