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EK In-class Exam 2
Divya_4978
#1 Posted : Thursday, June 18, 2020 1:55:44 AM
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Hello,

I am a bit confused with the answer choices in passage 3 question 36. I do not really understand what option C is stating and that is the correct answer.

also, I have trouble understanding question 43. If non-disjunction occurs due to turner syndrome, the question states that the individual will have one X and no Y. Does that mean the man has an affected X and doesn't have another chromosome? Then how does this relate to option C as I thought non-disjunction would occur in the father and not in the mother.

Thanks in advance.

INSTR_Shinthujah_68
#2 Posted : Saturday, June 20, 2020 12:03:23 AM
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Hi Divya,

Starting with Passage 3- Q36:
In order to understand this question, you will have to understand Figure 1 and what it represents. The colored-in shapes indicate the affected individuals i.e. the preterm newborns. In these individuals you can see that the DNA variations are only found on either the paternal or maternal chromosome. The question is asking why this might be.

A) We do not have any processes that check to see whether any mutations have been inherited once an embryo is formed. If we had this, it would solve several of our human diseases to this date (i.e like cancer)
B) While this is a possibility, preterm births seem to be prevalent (passage says it accounts for an estimated 2 million deaths worldwide)...therefore the possibility that 2 people carrying the mutation have NEVER conceived seems improbable. [Watch out for extreme language like 'NEVER' used in MCAT Qs, definitely double check these answer choices]
c) This answer choice says that perhaps the reason why we only see preterm babies with 1 copy of the mutation is because embryos with 2 copies of the mutation don't make it to birth i.e. they die. This would most definitely answer why we only see either a maternal/paternal copy. In these preterm babies with one copy, the 2nd wildtype/normal copy of the gene could make up for the mutation and therefore they survive.
d) We know that IGF1R is located on chromosome 15

Remember with MCAT Qs: rule out incorrect answers first. This helps you narrow down your choices :)

I hope this helped!

- Shin
INSTR_Shinthujah_68
#3 Posted : Saturday, June 20, 2020 12:33:28 AM
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Okay for Q 43:
Turner Syndrome refers to the fact that the individual only has one X chromosome (meaning that they are missing the other X chromosome). The passage states that color-blindness is a sex-linked (found on the X chromosome) recessive trait.

I would HIGHLY recommend mapping this question out! It definitely helped me :)
For simplicity I have written: Xb (refers to color-blind recessive trait); XB (dominant, normal)

If a color-blind man marries a healthy woman we are looking at:
( Xb Y ) x (XB XB)

If they have 2 children, both with turner syndrome ...that would mean they would both only have one copy of the X chromosome.

Only one of the children is color blind therefore the genotype of the color-blind child would be (Xb) and the genotype of the other child would be (XB).

If the color-blind child's genotype is Xb....she got that copy from her dad. Therefore, nondisjunction occurred in the mother and that is why the mother's copy was not passed to the child.

The other child with normal vision, her genotype is XB. Therefore, she must have gotten that copy from the mom and therefore nondisjunction happened in the father and that is why the other X chromosome was not passed to the child.

So your answer would be C.

I hope this makes a bit more sense :)

- Shin



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