Hi there,
I am a little confused about question 90... It states that children who are medically unable to produce speech, unable to produce speech errors have mastered their native language.
The answer is Nativist theory for language development; however, how can the child's ability to learn his/her native language be biological/genetic if the question says that they are medically unable to produce speech? Doesn't that rule nativist theory out? Wouldn't he/she be able to learn language through learned behaviour instead?
Thank you!