Welcome Guest Search | Active Topics |

Tag as favorite
Incomplete penetrance vs complete penetrance
Options
Previous Topic Next Topic
Jacklyn_6346
#1 Posted : Saturday, July 10, 2021 8:56:39 PM
Rank: Newbie

Groups: Registered
Joined: 4/22/2021
Posts: 3

Thanks: 0 times
Was thanked: 0 time(s) in 0 post(s)
Hi,

I'm not understanding incomplete penetrance. How can a dominant allele in a heterozygous not be expressed or recessive be not expressed in a homozyg rec individual?

I think I understand complete as in its either 100% or 0%, but lost on incomplete.

Thanks!
Back to top
Report?
INSTR_Molly_129
#2 Posted : Sunday, July 11, 2021 7:36:27 PM
Rank: Advanced Member

Groups: Registered
Joined: 5/23/2021
Posts: 74

Thanks: 0 times
Was thanked: 0 time(s) in 0 post(s)
Hi Jacklyn,

No worries, its definitely a little trippy!

Basically incomplete penetrance are when the alleles don't fully act as dominant or recessive. I think of it like incomplete dominance like in the example of hazel eyes, who are brown-green eye individuals who are heterozygous for the brown (dominant) allele and green (recessive) allele. Same idea with incomplete penetrance, it just means that for some reason, having those genes does not cause you to have that illness 100% of the time. Its possible that there is some epigenetic mechanism behind this or even more than one gene interacting but we only know of one gene right now.

I hope that helps! Let me know if you have any more questions.

Cheers,

Molly
Back to top
Report?
Users browsing this topic
Guest
Tag as favorite
You cannot post new topics in this forum.
You cannot reply to topics in this forum.
You cannot delete your posts in this forum.
You cannot edit your posts in this forum.
You cannot create polls in this forum.
You cannot vote in polls in this forum.

Clean Slate theme by Jaben Cargman (Tiny Gecko)
Powered by YAF | YAF © 2003-2009, Yet Another Forum.NET
This page was generated in 0.097 seconds.