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Incomplete penetrance vs complete penetrance
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Jacklyn_6346
#1 Posted : Saturday, July 10, 2021 8:56:39 PM
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Hi,

I'm not understanding incomplete penetrance. How can a dominant allele in a heterozygous not be expressed or recessive be not expressed in a homozyg rec individual?

I think I understand complete as in its either 100% or 0%, but lost on incomplete.

Thanks!
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INSTR_Molly_129
#2 Posted : Sunday, July 11, 2021 7:36:27 PM
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Hi Jacklyn,

No worries, its definitely a little trippy!

Basically incomplete penetrance are when the alleles don't fully act as dominant or recessive. I think of it like incomplete dominance like in the example of hazel eyes, who are brown-green eye individuals who are heterozygous for the brown (dominant) allele and green (recessive) allele. Same idea with incomplete penetrance, it just means that for some reason, having those genes does not cause you to have that illness 100% of the time. Its possible that there is some epigenetic mechanism behind this or even more than one gene interacting but we only know of one gene right now.

I hope that helps! Let me know if you have any more questions.

Cheers,

Molly
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